OA Exams

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  • November 30, 2024

Question 21

What role is responsible for ensuring that a project’s objectives align with the organization’s strategic goals and for providing the project with direction and resources?

a) Scrum master
b) Project sponsor
c) Product owner
d) Project coordinator

Correct Answer: b) Project sponsor

Explanation: The project sponsor ensures that the project aligns with the organization’s strategic goals and provides the necessary resources and direction.

Question 22

Which technique is used to identify and categorize potential risks based on their probability of occurrence and impact on the project?

a) Quantitative risk analysis
b) Scenario analysis
c) Qualitative risk analysis
d) Root cause analysis

Correct Answer: c) Qualitative risk analysis

Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis categorizes risks based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact on the project.

Question 23

Which project document is used to track and manage changes to the project scope, budget, or schedule?

a) Risk register
b) Change log
c) Issue log
d) Project charter

Correct Answer: b) Change log

Explanation: The change log is used to track and manage changes to the project scope, budget, or schedule, ensuring that all changes are documented.

Question 24

What type of organizational structure is characterized by employees reporting to both functional managers and project managers?

a) Functional organization
b) Projectized organization
c) Weak matrix organization
d) Matrix organization

Correct Answer: d) Matrix organization

Explanation: In a matrix organization, employees report to both functional and project managers, balancing project and operational work.

Question 25

Which agile event is used to review the progress made during a sprint and gather feedback from stakeholders?

a) Sprint retrospective
b) Daily stand-up
c) Sprint review
d) Sprint planning

Correct Answer: c) Sprint review

Explanation: The sprint review is an agile event where the team reviews the progress made during the sprint and gathers feedback from stakeholders.

Question 26

Which contract type is most appropriate when the scope of work is well-defined, and no significant changes are expected?

a) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
b) Time and Material (T&M)
c) Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
d) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

Correct Answer: c) Firm Fixed Price (FFP)

Explanation: A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract is best suited for projects with well-defined scopes where no significant changes are anticipated.

Question 27

Which project management process involves evaluating project risks to identify ways to minimize their probability or impact?

a) Risk identification
b) Risk assessment
c) Risk mitigation
d) Risk transfer

Correct Answer: c) Risk mitigation

Explanation: Risk mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize the probability or impact of identified project risks.

Question 28

Which resource leveling technique adjusts project tasks based on resource availability but can extend the project duration?

a) Crashing
b) Fast tracking
c) Resource leveling
d) Resource smoothing

Correct Answer: c) Resource leveling

Explanation: Resource leveling adjusts project tasks based on resource availability, allowing for more balanced resource use but potentially extending the project duration.

Question 29

What document is a high-level summary of a project, including the project objectives, deliverables, and the sponsor’s authorization to proceed?

a) Risk report
b) Project charter
c) Issue log
d) Requirements document

Correct Answer: b) Project charter

Explanation: The project charter is a high-level document that summarizes the project objectives, deliverables, and authorizes the project to proceed.

Question 30

Which process is responsible for regularly reviewing and updating a project’s risks throughout the project lifecycle?

a) Scope management
b) Risk monitoring
c) Change control
d) Quality assurance

Correct Answer: b) Risk monitoring

Explanation: Risk monitoring involves regularly reviewing and updating project risks to ensure that they are managed effectively throughout the project lifecycle.

Question 31

Which agile concept involves delivering the minimum set of features needed to test an idea and gather user feedback?

a) Sprint backlog
b) Minimum viable product (MVP)
c) Product backlog
d) Release planning

Correct Answer: b) Minimum viable product (MVP)

Explanation: The Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is the smallest set of features that can be delivered to gather feedback and test the viability of a product idea.

Question 32

Which testing method ensures that recent code changes have not negatively impacted the previously functioning parts of the system?

a) Regression testing
b) Unit testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Stress testing

Correct Answer: a) Regression testing

Explanation: Regression testing ensures that recent code changes have not affected other parts of the system that were previously functioning correctly.

Question 33

What document tracks the details of work packages, including the work package ID, description, assigned resources, and estimated costs?

a) Risk register
b) WBS dictionary
c) Change log
d) Gantt chart

Correct Answer: b) WBS dictionary

Explanation: The WBS dictionary provides details of each work package, including the work package ID, description, assigned resources, and estimated costs.

Question 34

Which project management tool uses a line to represent the target completion of work and shows how much work remains in a sprint?

a) Burnup chart
b) Gantt chart
c) Control chart
d) Burndown chart

Correct Answer: d) Burndown chart

Explanation: A burndown chart shows how much work remains in a sprint, using a line to represent the target completion of work.

Question 35

What project management process ensures that the project deliverables meet customer expectations and acceptance criteria?

a) Verification
b) Validation
c) Quality assurance
d) Inspection

Correct Answer: b) Validation

Explanation: Validation ensures that project deliverables meet customer expectations and acceptance criteria by presenting the final outputs to the customer.

Question 36

 Which chart visually represents the most common causes of problems and helps prioritize which problems should be addressed first?

a) Pareto chart
b) Run chart
c) Fishbone diagram
d) Control chart

Correct Answer: a) Pareto chart

Explanation: A Pareto chart helps prioritize problems by visually representing the most common causes and showing which issues should be addressed first.

Question 37

Which project management tool is commonly used to track resource allocation and monitor how much time team members spend on tasks?

a) Gantt chart
b) Resource leveling chart
c) Task board
d) Project dashboard

Correct Answer: d) Project dashboard

Explanation: A project dashboard is commonly used to track resource allocation, time spent on tasks, and overall project progress in real-time.

Question 38

Which type of risk analysis numerically assesses the probability and impact of risks and generates an overall risk score for the project?

a) Qualitative risk analysis
b) Quantitative risk analysis
c) Scenario analysis
d) Root cause analysis

Correct Answer: b) Quantitative risk analysis

Explanation: Quantitative risk analysis numerically assesses the probability and impact of risks, generating an overall risk score for the project.

Question 39

Which contract type provides financial incentives to the seller for meeting or exceeding specific project goals?

a) Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
b) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
c) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
d) Time and Material (T&M)

Correct Answer: b) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

Explanation: A Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract includes financial incentives for the seller if they meet or exceed specific project goals.

Question 40

Which agile document tracks progress and issues during a sprint and helps the team maintain transparency and focus on priorities?

a) Burndown chart
b) Sprint backlog
c) Product backlog
d) Kanban board

Correct Answer: b) Sprint backlog

Explanation: The sprint backlog tracks progress and issues during a sprint, helping the team maintain transparency and focus on priorities.

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