OA Exams

  • web.groovymark@gmail.com
  • December 23, 2024

Question 01

What is the primary benefit of a callable bond for the issuer?

  • a) It allows the issuer to pay lower interest
  • b) It allows the issuer to redeem the bond before maturity
  • c) It guarantees a fixed income for the bondholder
  • d) It converts debt into equity

Answer: b) It allows the issuer to redeem the bond before maturity

Explanation: Callable bonds give issuers the right to redeem the bond early, typically to refinance at lower interest rates when market rates decrease.

Question 02

A company has $2,500,000 in total equity and 250,000 shares outstanding. What is its book value per share?

  • a) $5
  • b) $7
  • c) $8
  • d) $10

Answer: d) $10

Explanation: Book value per share is calculated as Total Equity / Shares Outstanding. In this case: $2,500,000 / 250,000 = $10.

Question 03

Which financial ratio is most useful for assessing a company’s ability to meet its short-term obligations?

  • a) Debt-to-equity ratio
  • b) Price-to-earnings ratio
  • c) Current ratio
  • d) Return on equity

Answer: c) Current ratio

Explanation: The current ratio measures a company's ability to meet its short-term liabilities with its short-term assets, making it a key liquidity ratio.

Question 04

What is the impact of high financial leverage on a company’s return on equity (ROE)?

  • a) It reduces ROE
  • b) It increases ROE but with higher risk
  • c) It has no impact on ROE
  • d) It guarantees higher returns

Answer: b) It increases ROE but with higher risk

Explanation: High financial leverage amplifies ROE when returns are positive but increases the risk of large losses when returns are negative.

Question 05

What does a beta of 1.5 indicate about a stock?

  • a) The stock is less volatile than the market
  • b) The stock is equally volatile as the market
  • c) The stock is 50% more volatile than the market
  • d) The stock is 50% less volatile than the market

Answer: c) The stock is 50% more volatile than the market

Explanation: A beta of 1.5 indicates that the stock is 50% more volatile than the market, meaning it tends to increase or decrease by 1.5 times the market’s movements.

Question 06

A company has a net income of $500,000 and dividends of $100,000. What is the company’s retention ratio?

  • a) 10%
  • b) 20%
  • c) 60%
  • d) 80%

Answer: d) 80%

Explanation: The retention ratio is calculated as (Net Income - Dividends) / Net Income. In this case: ($500,000 - $100,000) / $500,000 = 80%.

Question 07

Which of the following securities is likely to offer the highest return?

  • a) Treasury Bonds
  • b) Corporate Bonds
  • c) High-Yield Bonds
  • d) Municipal Bonds

Answer: c) High-Yield Bonds

Explanation: High-yield bonds, also known as junk bonds, offer higher returns than other bonds due to the greater risk of default.

Question 08

What does a company’s quick ratio exclude that the current ratio includes?

  • a) Cash
  • b) Marketable securities
  • c) Inventory
  • d) Accounts receivable

Answer: c) Inventory

Explanation: The quick ratio excludes inventory from current assets to provide a more conservative measure of liquidity, whereas the current ratio includes inventory.

Question 09

A company has sales of $2,000,000, net income of $200,000, and total assets of $1,000,000. What is its return on assets (ROA)?

  • a) 10%
  • b) 15%
  • c) 20%
  • d) 25%

Answer: c) 20%

Explanation: ROA is calculated as Net Income / Total Assets. In this case: $200,000 / $1,000,000 = 20%.

Question 10

What is the primary advantage of preferred stock over common stock for investors?

  • a) Voting rights
  • b) Fixed dividends
  • c) Higher capital appreciation
  • d) Increased liquidity

Answer: b) Fixed dividends

Explanation: Preferred stock typically pays fixed dividends and has priority over common stockholders in receiving dividends and assets in the event of liquidation.

Question 11

A company’s price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio is 15, and its earnings per share (EPS) is $4. What is the stock price?

  • a) $40
  • b) $50
  • c) $55
  • d) $60

Answer: b) $60

Explanation: The stock price is calculated as P/E ratio × EPS. In this case: 15 × $4 = $60.

Question 12

A bond with a face value of $1,000 is currently selling for $950 and has an annual coupon rate of 5%. What is its current yield?

  • a) 4.75%
  • b) 5.00%
  • c) 5.26%
  • d) 5.50%

Answer: c) 5.26%

Explanation: The current yield is calculated as Annual Coupon Payment / Current Price. In this case: ($1,000 × 5%) / $950 = 5.26%.

Question 13

If the internal rate of return (IRR) of a project is lower than the company’s required rate of return, what should the company do?

  • a) Accept the project
  • b) Reject the project
  • c) Adjust the project’s cost
  • d) Increase the project’s risk

Answer: b) Reject the project

Explanation: If the IRR is lower than the required rate of return, the project does not meet the company’s return expectations and should be rejected.

Question 14

A company has a cost of debt of 6% and a tax rate of 30%. What is the after-tax cost of debt?

  • a) 4.2%
  • b) 5.0%
  • c) 5.6%
  • d) 6.0%

Answer: a) 4.2%

Explanation: The after-tax cost of debt is calculated as Cost of Debt × (1 - Tax Rate). In this case: 6% × (1 - 0.30) = 4.2%.

Question 15

What is the primary purpose of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)?

  • a) To protect investors from fraudulent financial reporting
  • b) To reduce corporate tax rates
  • c) To increase shareholder voting rights
  • d) To regulate international trade

Answer: a) To protect investors from fraudulent financial reporting

Explanation: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) was enacted to enhance transparency and accountability in corporate financial reporting, primarily to prevent fraud.

Question 16

A bond with a face value of $1,000 has a coupon rate of 6%, paid semiannually. How much will the bondholder receive in interest each year?

  • a) $30
  • b) $60
  • c) $120
  • d) $600

Answer: b) $60

Explanation: The annual interest payment is calculated as Face Value × Coupon Rate. In this case: $1,000 × 6% = $60 per year.

Question 17

What does a company’s accounts receivable turnover ratio measure?

  • a) The company’s efficiency in collecting receivables
  • b) The company’s ability to pay off its debts
  • c) The company’s liquidity position
  • d) The company’s profitability

Answer: a) The company’s efficiency in collecting receivables

Explanation: The accounts receivable turnover ratio measures how efficiently a company collects payments from its customers, indicating how quickly receivables are converted into cash.

Question 18

A company’s inventory turnover ratio is 8, and its average inventory is $150,000. What is the company’s cost of goods sold (COGS)?

  • a) $900,000
  • b) $1,000,000
  • c) $1,200,000
  • d) $1,500,000

Answer: b) $1,200,000

Explanation: COGS is calculated as Inventory Turnover × Average Inventory. In this case: 8 × $150,000 = $1,200,000.

Question 19

What does the time value of money concept imply?

  • a) Money today is worth more than money in the future
  • b) Money today is worth less than money in the future
  • c) Money in the future has the same value as money today
  • d) Money has no value until it is invested

Answer: a) Money today is worth more than money in the future

Explanation: The time value of money states that a dollar today is worth more than a dollar in the future because of its earning potential over time.

Question 20

 A company has a cost of equity of 10%, a cost of debt of 5%, and a debt-to-equity ratio of 1:1. If the tax rate is 30%, what is the company’s WACC?

  • a) 6.5%
  • b) 7.0%
  • c) 7.5%
  • d) 8.0%

Answer: c) 7.5%

Explanation: WACC is calculated as (Weight of Debt × After-tax Cost of Debt) + (Weight of Equity × Cost of Equity). In this case, WACC = (0.5 × 5% × (1 - 0.30)) + (0.5 × 10%) = 7.5%.

Complete the Captcha to view next question set.

Prev Post
WGU D364 Practice Exam Questions – Set 3 – Part 3
Next Post
WGU D364 Practice Exam Questions – Set 4 – Part 2