OA Exams

  • web.groovymark@gmail.com
  • December 2, 2024

Question 21

What is “cyber threat intelligence”?

a) The collection and analysis of information about potential cyber threats
b) A method of data encryption
c) A type of malware
d) A data backup solution

Correct Answer: a) The collection and analysis of information about potential cyber threats

Explanation: Cyber threat intelligence helps organizations understand and mitigate threats more effectively.

Question 22

 What is “threat hunting”?

a) The process of identifying and mitigating security threats
b) A method of data encryption
c) A type of malware
d) A network monitoring tool

Correct Answer: a) The process of identifying and mitigating security threats

Explanation: Threat hunting involves proactively searching for indicators of compromise within networks and systems.

Question 23

What is a “botnet”?

a) A type of firewall
b) A network of infected devices controlled by an attacker
c) A data backup solution
d) A method of user authentication

Correct Answer: b) A network of infected devices controlled by an attacker

Explanation: Botnets are often used to launch distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks or distribute malware.

Question 24

What does “malware analysis” involve?

a) The process of backing up data
b) The examination of malicious software to understand its behavior and impact
c) A type of firewall
d) A method of user authentication

Correct Answer: b) The examination of malicious software to understand its behavior and impact

Explanation: Malware analysis helps security professionals develop effective countermeasures against threats.

Question 25

What is “network segmentation”?

a) Dividing a network into smaller parts to enhance security
b) A type of malware
c) A method of data encryption
d) A backup solution

Correct Answer: a) Dividing a network into smaller parts to enhance security

Explanation: Network segmentation helps contain security incidents and improve overall network performance.

Question 26

What is “data encryption at rest”?

a) Encrypting data while in transit
b) Encrypting data stored on disk
c) A type of malware
d) A method of user authentication

Correct Answer: b) Encrypting data stored on disk

Explanation: Data encryption at rest protects sensitive information from unauthorized access while it is stored.

Question 27

What is “cloud security”?

a) A method of data backup
b) The practice of protecting cloud computing environments and data
c) A type of firewall
d) A process for managing user accounts

Correct Answer: b) The practice of protecting cloud computing environments and data

Explanation: Cloud security involves implementing security measures to protect data and applications hosted in the cloud.

Question 28

What is “patch management”?

a) The process of identifying, acquiring, and installing updates for software
b) A method of encrypting data
c) A type of malware
d) A network monitoring tool

Correct Answer: a) The process of identifying, acquiring, and installing updates for software

Explanation: Patch management helps fix vulnerabilities in software and ensures systems remain secure.

Question 29

What is a “security incident”?

a) An event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information
b) A type of malware
c) A method of user authentication
d) A data backup solution

Correct Answer: a) An event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information

Explanation: Security incidents require immediate response to mitigate damage.

Question 30

What is “insider threat”?

a) Threats from external attackers
b) Threats originating from within the organization
c) A type of malware
d) A method of user authentication

Correct Answer: b) Threats originating from within the organization

Explanation: Insider threats can involve employees or contractors misusing access to sensitive information.

Question 31

What does “incident management” entail?

a) A process for handling and resolving security incidents
b) A method for encrypting data
c) A type of firewall
d) A data backup solution

Correct Answer: a) A process for handling and resolving security incidents

Explanation: Incident management ensures timely response and recovery from security events.

Question 32

What is “disaster recovery”?

a) The process of backing up data
b) A set of policies and procedures for recovering from a disruptive event
c) A type of malware
d) A network monitoring tool

Correct Answer: b) A set of policies and procedures for recovering from a disruptive event

Explanation: Disaster recovery focuses on restoring critical systems and operations after a disaster.

Question 33

What is “regulatory compliance”?

a) The process of managing user accounts
b) Adhering to laws, regulations, and guidelines relevant to an organization’s operations
c) A type of malware
d) A method of data encryption

Correct Answer: b) Adhering to laws, regulations, and guidelines relevant to an organization's operations

Explanation: Regulatory compliance helps organizations avoid legal penalties and enhance their reputation.

Question 34

 What does “threat modeling” involve?

a) Creating visual representations of security incidents
b) Identifying and prioritizing potential threats to a system or application
c) A method of data encryption
d) A type of malware

Correct Answer: b) Identifying and prioritizing potential threats to a system or application

Explanation: Threat modeling helps organizations understand risks and implement appropriate security measures.

Question 35

What is “email security”?

a) A type of firewall
b) The practice of protecting email accounts and communications
c) A method of data encryption
d) A data backup solution

Correct Answer: b) The practice of protecting email accounts and communications

Explanation: Email security measures help prevent phishing, spam, and unauthorized access to email accounts.

Question 36

What is “digital rights management” (DRM)?

a) A method for encrypting data
b) A technology used to control access to digital content
c) A type of malware
d) A data backup solution

Correct Answer: b) A technology used to control access to digital content

Explanation: DRM helps protect intellectual property by preventing unauthorized use and distribution.

Question 37

What is “API security”?

a) A type of malware
b) The practice of securing application programming interfaces from threats
c) A method of data encryption
d) A network monitoring tool

Correct Answer: b) The practice of securing application programming interfaces from threats

Explanation: API security involves protecting APIs from attacks that could compromise data or services.

Question 38

What does “malicious code” refer to?

a) Code that enhances software functionality
b) Code designed to harm, exploit, or compromise a computer system
c) A method of data encryption
d) A type of firewall

Correct Answer: b) Code designed to harm, exploit, or compromise a computer system

Explanation: Malicious code includes viruses, worms, trojans, and ransomware.

Question 39

What is “internet security”?

a) A method for backing up data
b) A practice that encompasses security measures for protecting users and data on the internet
c) A type of malware
d) A data encryption method

Correct Answer: b) A practice that encompasses security measures for protecting users and data on the internet

Explanation: Internet security aims to safeguard online communications and transactions from threats.

Question 40

What does “security policy” refer to?

a) A method of data encryption
b) A document outlining an organization’s security requirements and procedures
c) A type of malware
d) A data backup solution

Correct Answer: b) A document outlining an organization's security requirements and procedures

Explanation: Security policies help ensure consistent security practices within an organization.

Complete the Captcha to view next question set.

Prev Post
WGU D340 Practice Exam Questions – Set 5 – Part 1
Next Post
WGU D340 Practice Exam Questions – Set 5 – Part 3