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web.groovymark@gmail.com
- November 30, 2024
Question 01
What is the key purpose of the Project Charter in project management?
a) To define the project team structure
b) To officially authorize the project to begin
c) To assign project tasks to team members
d) To create the project schedule
Correct Answer: b) To officially authorize the project to begin
Explanation: The Project Charter is a formal document that authorizes the existence of the project and grants the project manager the authority to use resources.
Question 02
What method helps compare the current state of a project or system with the desired future state and outlines the steps needed to close the gap?
a) Stakeholder analysis
b) SWOT analysis
c) Gap analysis
d) Root cause analysis
Correct Answer: c) Gap analysis
Explanation: A gap analysis compares the current state to the desired future state and outlines the steps needed to close the difference between them.
Question 03
Which term refers to the unauthorized expansion of a project’s scope without proper approval, often leading to delays and increased costs?
a) Scope reduction
b) Scope alignment
c) Scope creep
d) Scope baseline
Correct Answer: c) Scope creep
Explanation: Scope creep occurs when additional features or requirements are added to a project without proper approval, leading to delays and increased costs.
Question 04
What type of contract reimburses the seller for allowable costs, plus an additional fee that is based on the buyer’s subjective assessment of performance?
a) Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
b) Time and Material (T&M)
c) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
d) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Correct Answer: a) Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
Explanation: CPAF contracts reimburse the seller for costs and add a performance-based fee, assessed subjectively by the buyer.
Question 05
Which project management document lists identified risks, their potential impacts, and the strategies to mitigate them?
a) Issue log
b) Risk register
c) Status report
d) Project charter
Correct Answer: b) Risk register
Explanation: The risk register lists all identified risks, along with their potential impacts, and outlines strategies to mitigate them.
Question 06
In the Scrum framework, which event is held at the end of each sprint to reflect on what went well and what can be improved?
a) Sprint planning
b) Daily stand-up
c) Sprint review
d) Sprint retrospective
Correct Answer: d) Sprint retrospective
Explanation: The sprint retrospective is held at the end of each sprint to discuss what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve in future sprints.
Question 07
Which process involves confirming that the project deliverables meet the documented quality standards?
a) Validation
b) Inspection
c) Verification
d) Approval
Correct Answer: c) Verification
Explanation: Verification is the process of confirming that project deliverables meet the documented quality standards through internal checks and audits.
Question 08
Which chart provides a graphical representation of the sequence of tasks, their duration, and dependencies in a project schedule?
a) Gantt chart
b) Pareto chart
c) Control chart
d) Scatter diagram
Correct Answer: a) Gantt chart
Explanation: A Gantt chart provides a graphical representation of tasks, their duration, and dependencies along a timeline, making it easier to track progress.
Question 09
What is the main responsibility of the project sponsor?
a) Managing daily project tasks
b) Providing resources and support for the project
c) Approving technical deliverables
d) Creating the project schedule
Correct Answer: b) Providing resources and support for the project
Explanation: The project sponsor provides resources, support, and overall guidance for the project, ensuring alignment with organizational objectives.
Question 10
Which process ensures that all requested project changes are documented, reviewed, and either approved or denied?
a) Quality assurance
b) Change control
c) Risk mitigation
d) Stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: b) Change control
Explanation: The change control process ensures that all changes are properly documented, reviewed, and approved or denied before implementation.
Question 11
Which project document helps track and resolve issues that have occurred during the project lifecycle?
a) Risk register
b) Change log
c) Issue log
d) Project charter
Correct Answer: c) Issue log
Explanation: The issue log helps track and manage issues that arise during the project, ensuring that they are addressed and resolved.
Question 12
What type of contract is used when the project scope is uncertain, and both labor and materials are billed based on actual usage?
a) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
b) Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
c) Time and Material (T&M)
d) Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Correct Answer: c) Time and Material (T&M)
Explanation: A Time and Material contract is used when the project scope is unclear, and both labor and materials are billed based on actual usage.
Question 13
Which testing method evaluates the performance of a system by subjecting it to conditions beyond its expected workload?
a) Smoke testing
b) Unit testing
c) Stress testing
d) User acceptance testing
Correct Answer: c) Stress testing
Explanation: Stress testing evaluates system performance under extreme load conditions to determine its stability and reliability.
Question 14
Which agile framework focuses on customer satisfaction through continuous delivery of valuable software and frequent collaboration?
a) PRINCE2
b) Waterfall
c) Scrum
d) Kanban
Correct Answer: c) Scrum
Explanation: Scrum focuses on delivering valuable software through short, iterative cycles and frequent customer collaboration.
Question 15
What method is used to estimate the duration of an activity based on historical data from similar past projects?
a) Parametric estimating
b) Three-point estimating
c) Bottom-up estimating
d) Analogous estimating
Correct Answer: d) Analogous estimating
Explanation: Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects to estimate the duration or cost of a current project.
Question 16
What document outlines the goods or services that need to be purchased for a project and provides vendors with the project details?
a) Scope statement
b) Statement of Work (SOW)
c) Risk register
d) Project charter
Correct Answer: b) Statement of Work (SOW)
Explanation: The Statement of Work (SOW) outlines the goods or services required for the project and provides vendors with detailed project information.
Question 17
Which type of risk response involves transferring the ownership of a risk to a third party, such as purchasing insurance?
a) Mitigate
b) Avoid
c) Transfer
d) Accept
Correct Answer: c) Transfer
Explanation: Risk transfer involves shifting the ownership of a risk to a third party, such as using insurance or subcontracting.
Question 18
In agile, what is the primary purpose of a sprint backlog?
a) To outline all project deliverables
b) To plan future sprints
c) To track the progress of current tasks
d) To list the work items to be completed in a sprint
Correct Answer: d) To list the work items to be completed in a sprint
Explanation: The sprint backlog lists the work items that the development team will complete during the sprint, providing a clear focus for the iteration.
Question 19
Which project management process ensures that project tasks are completed within the allocated time and budget while meeting quality requirements?
a) Quality control
b) Scope management
c) Project execution
d) Risk management
Correct Answer: c) Project execution
Explanation: Project execution focuses on completing tasks within the allocated time and budget while ensuring quality requirements are met.
Question 20
Which project management tool provides a high-level overview of major project milestones and their corresponding timelines?
a) Pareto chart
b) Milestone chart
c) Control chart
d) Run chart
Correct Answer: b) Milestone chart
Explanation: A milestone chart provides a high-level overview of significant project events and their corresponding timelines, making it easier to track progress.
