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web.groovymark@gmail.com
- November 27, 2024
Question 01
Which compliance framework is most relevant for organizations managing credit card data?
A. ISO/IEC 27001
B. PCI DSS
C. HIPAA
D. NIST SP 800-53
Correct Answer: B. PCI DSS
Explanation: PCI DSS is specifically designed to secure credit card data and transactions. ISO/IEC 27001 is a general information security standard, HIPAA focuses on healthcare data, and NIST SP 800-53 provides security controls for federal information systems.
Question 02
Which security control is designed to protect data in use, particularly when it is being processed by applications?
A. Data Masking
B. Homomorphic Encryption
C. Tokenization
D. Disk Encryption
Correct Answer: B. Homomorphic Encryption
Explanation: Homomorphic Encryption allows data to be processed while still encrypted, protecting it while in use. Data Masking and Tokenization protect data at rest or in transit, and Disk Encryption secures data at rest.
Question 03
Which operational process involves the proactive identification and resolution of issues that could lead to incidents in the cloud environment?
A. Problem Management
B. Incident Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Change Management
Correct Answer: A. Problem Management
Explanation: Problem Management identifies and resolves issues before they lead to incidents. Incident Management deals with incidents as they occur, Capacity Management ensures resources meet demands, and Change Management handles modifications to the environment.
Question 04
Which risk management strategy involves sharing the risk with another party, such as through outsourcing or insurance?
A. Risk Mitigation
B. Risk Acceptance
C. Risk Transference
D. Risk Avoidance
Correct Answer: C. Risk Transference
Explanation: Risk Transference involves sharing the risk with another party, such as an insurer or outsourced service provider. Risk Mitigation reduces risks, Risk Acceptance involves accepting them, and Risk Avoidance eliminates them.
Question 05
Which U.S. law focuses on protecting the privacy of student educational records?
A. HIPAA
B. FERPA
C. SOX
D. GLBA
Correct Answer: B. FERPA
Explanation: The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) protects the privacy of student educational records. HIPAA protects health information, SOX focuses on corporate governance, and GLBA addresses financial information.
Question 06
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a security information and event management (SIEM) system in cloud security?
A. Managing user identities and access controls
B. Centralizing and analyzing security logs
C. Encrypting data at rest and in transit
D. Configuring firewall rules and policies
Correct Answer: B. Centralizing and analyzing security logs
Explanation: A SIEM system centralizes and analyzes security logs to identify and respond to potential security threats. It does not directly manage user identities, encrypt data, or configure firewalls, but it helps monitor and secure the environment.
Question 07
Which cloud operations management process focuses on ensuring that cloud services meet or exceed customer expectations as defined in the service level agreement (SLA)?
A. Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Capacity Management
Correct Answer: C. Service Level Management
Explanation: Service Level Management ensures that cloud services meet or exceed the terms set out in the SLA. Change Management, Incident Management, and Capacity Management are related processes but do not directly ensure SLA compliance.
Question 08
Which of the following describes the process of prioritizing risks based on their potential impact and likelihood?
A. Risk Mitigation
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk Transference
D. Risk Acceptance
Correct Answer: B. Risk Assessment
Explanation: Risk Assessment involves identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing risks based on their potential impact and likelihood. Risk Mitigation, Transference, and Acceptance are strategies for managing risks after they have been assessed.
Question 09
Which legal framework specifically addresses the cross-border transfer of personal data between the European Union and other countries?
A. HIPAA
B. GDPR
C. SOX
D. Safe Harbor Framework
Correct Answer: B. GDPR
Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) governs the protection of personal data within the EU and regulates cross-border transfers. Safe Harbor was a previous framework, now replaced by the EU-U.S. Privacy Shield, but GDPR is the current standard.
Question 10
Which technology is used to protect data from being intercepted or altered during transmission over a network?
A. Disk Encryption
B. SSL/TLS
C. Data Masking
D. Biometric Authentication
Correct Answer: B. SSL/TLS
Explanation: SSL/TLS protocols encrypt data during transmission to protect it from interception or tampering. Disk Encryption secures data at rest, Data Masking obscures data in use, and Biometric Authentication controls access to systems.
Question 11
Which type of audit report is most commonly used to provide customers with confidence in a cloud provider’s internal controls?
A. SOC 2
B. ISO/IEC 27001 Certification
C. PCI DSS Report on Compliance
D. HIPAA Compliance Report
Correct Answer: A. SOC 2
Explanation: SOC 2 reports provide assurance about a cloud provider's internal controls, particularly those related to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. ISO/IEC 27001 and PCI DSS are certifications, and HIPAA reports are specific to healthcare.
Question 12
Which of the following best describes a qualitative risk assessment?
A. Uses numerical values to estimate the impact of risks
B. Involves ranking risks based on their severity
C. Transfers risks to another party through insurance
D. Eliminates risks by avoiding the associated activities
Correct Answer: B. Involves ranking risks based on their severity
Explanation: Qualitative risk assessments involve ranking risks based on their severity, often using subjective judgment. Quantitative assessments use numerical values, Risk Transfer involves insurance, and Risk Avoidance involves eliminating risks.
Question 13
Which of the following describes the legal requirement for organizations to implement adequate safeguards to protect personal data?
A. Data Minimization
B. Data Integrity
C. Data Protection by Design
D. Data Breach Notification
Correct Answer: C. Data Protection by Design
Explanation: Data Protection by Design requires organizations to implement appropriate safeguards throughout the data lifecycle. Data Minimization limits data collection, Data Integrity ensures accuracy, and Data Breach Notification involves informing individuals when their data is compromised.
Question 14
Which of the following is a primary method for securing data in a multi-tenant cloud environment?
A. Using shared virtual machines
B. Implementing strong access control policies
C. Encrypting data in transit
D. Isolating tenants using VLANs
Correct Answer: D. Isolating tenants using VLANs
Explanation: VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) can isolate tenants in a multi-tenant environment, ensuring that data and resources are separated. Shared virtual machines could compromise security, while access control and encryption protect data but do not provide isolation.
Question 15
Which operational process in cloud computing is focused on optimizing the performance and efficiency of cloud resources?
A. Incident Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Problem Management
D. Change Management
Correct Answer: B. Capacity Management
Explanation: Capacity Management ensures that cloud resources are used efficiently and can meet future demand. Incident Management addresses immediate issues, Problem Management identifies root causes of incidents, and Change Management controls modifications to the environment.
Question 16
Which risk management strategy is appropriate when an organization decides to discontinue a risky activity rather than attempt to manage the associated risks?
A. Risk Acceptance
B. Risk Transference
C. Risk Avoidance
D. Risk Mitigation
Correct Answer: C. Risk Avoidance
Explanation: Risk Avoidance involves discontinuing an activity that poses a high risk, effectively eliminating the risk altogether. Risk Acceptance involves taking no action, Risk Transference shifts the risk, and Risk Mitigation reduces it.
Question 17
Which principle under GDPR requires that personal data be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes?
A. Data Minimization
B. Purpose Limitation
C. Accuracy
D. Integrity and Confidentiality
Correct Answer: B. Purpose Limitation
Explanation: The Purpose Limitation principle under GDPR mandates that personal data be collected only for specific, legitimate purposes and not be further processed in a manner incompatible with those purposes. Data Minimization limits data collection, Accuracy ensures correctness, and Integrity and Confidentiality protect data.
Question 18
Which type of encryption is typically used to secure communication between a web browser and a cloud service?
A. Symmetric Encryption
B. Asymmetric Encryption
C. SSL/TLS
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: C. SSL/TLS
Explanation: SSL/TLS is used to secure communication between a web browser and a cloud service by encrypting data in transit. Symmetric and Asymmetric encryption are encryption methods, while Hashing is used for data integrity, not for securing communication.
Question 19
Which cloud operational activity involves the systematic testing of a cloud service’s resilience and reliability under load conditions?
A. Load Testing
B. Penetration Testing
C. Functional Testing
D. Compliance Testing
Correct Answer: A. Load Testing
Explanation: Load Testing evaluates a cloud service's ability to handle heavy traffic or demand, ensuring resilience and reliability. Penetration Testing identifies security vulnerabilities, Functional Testing checks if the service meets requirements, and Compliance Testing ensures it meets legal standards.
Question 20
Which document is crucial for defining the acceptable levels of risk within an organization and guiding risk management efforts?
A. Risk Register
B. Risk Appetite Statement
C. Incident Response Plan
D. Business Continuity Plan
Correct Answer: B. Risk Appetite Statement
Explanation: The Risk Appetite Statement defines the acceptable levels of risk that an organization is willing to tolerate and guides risk management efforts. A Risk Register tracks identified risks, an Incident Response Plan addresses incidents, and a Business Continuity Plan ensures operations during disruptions.
